ala888

this is in apache right?

nvm, thanks

I dont use gitbut because I never understood the whole filing of it. Could you link me directly to the file itself?

I mean the whole

onclick(pause/play)

is already built into mozilla web browser, while it isnt on something else like chrome.

when you click the video on chrome, nothing happens without this script. but if you do on mozilla, it will still play without script.So when the same script runs on mozilla, its essentially running 2x - resulting in the video NOT playing.

No that's not what I meant.

lets say my directory looks like this

root/

index.php

anotherlink/

anotherlink.php

how do I make it so that anotherlink.php opens automatically upon calling

"www.domain.com/anotherlink/

Is it possible to open up a php file in a sub directory of root without specifically setting it as a destination; but rather, only referencing the folder it is in ? Similar to how, index.html, opens automatically when viewers visit the home page - despite it never being explicitly called.

Basically, if I code something like

onclick="functionx()"

function x()

{if(video.paused){

video.play();

}else

{video.pause();

}

}

works fine in chrome. Problem is, in mozilla firefox, this function is already built into the browser - so when the user clicks

the video to play it, it starts and stops almost immediately. How do I work around this? Browser detection is out the door due to reliability issues.

would jquery be this then ?

var $ = function(selectorS)

{

var selector = selectorS;

click = function(alert(x.selector));}

$("HELLO WORLD").click();

I tried this out, sadly it does not work. why?

Then how come, say for a linking tag for a css stylesheet, it is acceptable to state "/TEST.CSS" - and it would successfully connect with the .css document in the web server root. Rather than connecting to the file system root?

or is it simply a difference in the interpretation between the languages of HTML vs PHP?

like html "/" is web document, while php "/" is filesystem

if the html dom object forms exists in javascript as an object,

why can its contents be called as if it were an array?

documents.forms[0]....

I appreciate the help!

Could you clear this up more please?Im having some trouble understanding.In javascript, if functions are just glorified object prototypes, then why is it not mandatory to declare all new functions as we do new objects?

var x = new function();

and not

function x ();

Thanks alot, that really cleared it up!

The function glob() used for searching items/directories

does not recognize the root reference "/" for some reason.When I code something like

print_r(glob("/*.jpg"));

It returns all .jpgs in my C: directory(Im practicing with a desktop) rather than the specified root directory on the XXAMP

How do I correct this?Also is there a page anywhere that guides you on how to path with code?Like what all the "/" and stuff means, and their subsequent references to directories? I've been searching everywhere, but I dont even know what its called!

thanks

How does JQUERY circumvent need for "new" statement.

var x = new jquery(...);

Is there a specific set of functions or whatever in the jquery prototype itself that automatically initiates the procedure?could someone link me ?

let me rephrase myself, as I realized how ridiculously ambiguous I sound.

<script>

$herpderpsomejquerymethods //SELF INVOKES, LORDY LORDY, PRAISE JESUS

</script>

$herpderdperderp.herdeprerp($someotherstuff); // NO SELF INVOKING. OH NOES

$herpderdperderp.herdeprerp(FUNCTION(){$someotherstuff}); // ya need to add this redundant thing, but y?

Hi guys, giant scrub here.

$('selector').('somemethod')();

is the general syntax of jquery

but, why do I see this:

$('p').click(function(){ ................... });

as opposed to

$('p').click( ................... );

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I can do this:

function x() {

if(something) { $().(); }

}

calling jquery directly!

so why not this?

$('p').click($().(););

Why cant I just use something else like another superglobal ? Set a random variable, and check that random variable

or is it just by definition - set in stone by some PHP dudes in a white labcoat?

K I understand now. But I have a question to why ['php_self'] grabs its value from the client-side sent request instead of directly from the webserver directory. Seems a bitter counter-intuitive to me; unless of course, there is some inherent benefit to the procedure - please enlighten me.Also, is there another superglobal that does grab its value directly from the web server directory, as an enhanced replacement for ['php_self']

thanks for the tip, found it really helps

>go pick up "the" book which does not exist

>cant find it, return undefined.>go to page 52>cant find it, but return an error instead of just inheriting the undefined value

good job developers.

why is there an error? Why not simply return "undefined" like usual

no specifically, I mean how the value of a couple drop into complete void, IDK what their value is, even if I use "else", like if it aint x==2, it does not work !

So like, at what level of "undefined" does the ????? come in. Sorry, I have no idea how to phrase this without being super obscure

Can someone explain this phenomena to me? or atleast tell me what its called?Also, where can I get a comprehensive list of these object things in Js?Im stumbling across stuff like ".name" on accident, but no idea where the "official" properties and objects come from

document.forms.random == undefined

document.random == undefined

document.forms.random.qwe == ????

documents.random.qwe == ????

>the value comes from the request headers

well then, if it came from there, why would it execute the same php even though the url is different? wont their attempt at modifying url just lead them into a 404 error?

why does it need to be

onsubmit="return function()"

and not just simply

onsumbit="function()"

?if the function() already returns false, why do we need to add another return there ?

Hello!I don't exactly understand how the vulnerability of injection for the $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'] works.

I've looked at multiple other threads; but what I don't understand is, since the php file is running server side,

how is it even physically possible for the client to alter the value of "$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']" by changing the url in his browser? The command essentially pulls up a list of files from server root and scans through their names. It doesn't check client side url address box! Therefore, anything the user types shouldn't effect the website itself, since the form "$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']" part is deriving its value way back from the server itself.

thanks for the help!